Objection 11: Ephesians 2:15 and Colossians 2:14-16 prove that the law was abolished at the cross.
It is very true that these texts signal the abolition of the law, but which law?
Ephesians 2:14-16 states: “ For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, and that He might reconcile them both to God in one body through the cross, thereby putting to death the enmity.”
Colossians 2:14-17 states: “Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; and having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it. Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.”
Under Objection 2 we found that the Bible speaks of more than one law, and that these two texts describe the ceremonial law. We might therefore proceed to the next objection without further discussion. But since some argue that these texts do away with the Ten Commandment law, the moral law, we shall here examine them further.
We found that “where no law is, there is no transgression,” and that had the commandment not told us about covetousness, we would not know it to be sin. (See Rom. 4:15; 7:7) The simple proof that there was sin long before Moses’ time established for us the fact that the law must have been in existence before then.
It is evident that by the very same process of reasoning we can quickly discover whether the law existed after Christ’s time. Did sin exist after the cross? Most certainly. The apostles went out to preach to sinners after Christ's return to heaven. The New Testament has as much to say about sin and sinners as has the Old. “But sin is not imputed when there is no law.” Rom. 5:13.
Thus it is as clear as a spring morning that the Ten Commandments is as surely in existence after Christ as it was before Moses.
The texts declare: “He [Christ] is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us. Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments, contained in ordinances; for to make in Himself of twain one new man, so making peace.” Eph. 2:14, 15. “Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross.... Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of a new moon, or of the Sabbath days." Col. 2:14,16.
What do we generally mean by “ordinances” when we speak religiously? The Standard dictionary thus defines the word: “A religious rite or ceremony as ordained or established by divine or by ecclesiastical authority; as, the ordinance of the Lord's supper.”
We found that the Jewish church before Christ had certain ordinances, even as we since Christ's time have ordinances, such as the Lord's supper and baptism. Only they had many more. They had special rites and ceremonies, like the Passover and various holy days and meat offerings and drink offerings . . . We read, for example, “This is the ordinance of the Passover.” Ex. 12:43.
When these are referred to in the New Testament, the same language is used, for example:
“Meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances.” Heb. 9:10.
We also found that there were various laws and commandments stating just how these ordinances should be carried out. These were all written down by Moses in a book, and are generally described by Bible writers as the law of Moses, or the ceremonial law, which is not to be confused with the ten-commandment law. How evident, then, that the law which Paul here says is “abolished” and blotted out, does not include the Ten Commandments.
The book of Hebrews contains the best explanation of the relation of the ancient Jewish ceremonies to the work of Christ. In it we read of “the law having a shadow of good things to come.” Heb. 10:1. Plainly the writer means the ceremonial law, first, because the moral law could not be described as a foreshadowing of something to come, because it deals with eternal principles; second, the writer says “the law” there spoken of deals with “burnt offerings and offering for sin.” Verse 8.
All the offerings under the Jewish service were intended to point forward to when Christ, the great sacrifice, should be offered up. When that one great, perfect sacrifice for sin was made, there was no longer need of a system of types and shadows. Christ “offered one sacrifice for sins for ever.” Verse 12. The laws and ordinances commanding the offerings of sacrifices, of meat and drink offerings, of annual holy days, like the Passover, were all abolished at the cross. Shadow met reality, type met anti-type.
In view of this we have no difficulty in understanding what Paul refers to when he speaks of the “law of commandments contained in ordinances” and the “handwriting of ordinances” in the two texts we are examining. He means simply the ceremonial law.
He makes this doubly clear by saying in the succeeding verses that because these “ordinances” are abolished we are no longer under obligation as to offerings of meat or drink, and certain holy days, which “are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is found in Christ.” The comparison with the language of the book of Hebrews is exact.
Why is it called the “handwriting” of ordinances? Because when Moses received the law, he wrote it out for the people:
“Then Moses came and recounted to the people all the words of the LORD and all the ordinances; and all the people answered with one voice and said, "All the words which the LORD has spoken we will do!" Moses wrote down all the words of the LORD” (Exodus 24:3-4).
The Law of Moses was not an oral tradition passed down through the generations. It was a handwritten code of law, hence, “a handwriting of ordinances.”
Now, in this the ceremonial law is distinguished from the Ten Commandments. Were the Ten Commandments written down by Moses? No, God wrote the Ten Commandments on tablets of stone and gave them to Moses. (Exodus 31:18). They were not written down by Moses, not part of the “handwriting of ordinances.”
It is also interesting to compare Paul with Peter on the subject of the ceremonial law. Paul says the “handwriting of ordinances” “was against us” and “contrary to us.” (Col. 2:14) What did Peter say?: “Now therefore why do you put God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples a yoke which neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear?" (Acts 15:10). Both Paul and Peter were very happy to be free from the ceremonial law.
That only the ceremonial law was done away with is obvious from the context:
Let us imagine that a certain jurisdiction repealed all its laws. Wouldn’t it be silly for a government official to declare solemnly that, from now on, no one may judge you for parking overtime, or failing to have your car inspected, when actually no one may judge you for murder, burglary or robbery?
On the other hand, if that jurisdiction repealed only its traffic and motor vehicle laws, how understandable and perfectly reasonable for an official to make the announcement that henceforth no one may be judged in the matter of parking, or having his vehicle inspected.
The fact that Paul mentioned only the ceremonial laws—“in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days”—shows that it is the ceremonial laws that have been “nailed to the cross,” not the moral law.
So far from these texts teaching that the ten-commandment law is abolished, they do not even mention it.
(See objection 29, for a further discussion of the Colossian passage as it relates specifically to the Sabbath command.)